ACCS Respiratory Practice Exam

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• Carotid sinus syncope is most strongly associated with which condition?
• PaO2 can be estimated by subtracting which value from SaO2?
• Excessive fluids in a patient are treated with which intervention?
• Which of the following is an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)?
• What is the primary purpose of a Train-of-4 monitor in NMBA management?
• What is the normal ETCO2 percent?
• Temperature norms specify measurement ranges for which sites?
• What is included in the initial management of suspected spinal injury?
• Nystagmus is defined as which finding?
• Weaning APRV using the Drop and Stretch method begins with which step?
• Which term stands for the normal pupil reaction to light and accommodation?
• In myocardial injury, the ECG finding is
• In the ARF typology, which type is defined by hypoxemia with PaO2 around 50-60 torr on room air and a PaO2/FiO2 ratio less than 300?
• Which antibiotic class includes Amikacin, Gentamicin, and Tobramycin and is used for gram-negative coverage?
• Which mucolytic directly dissolves disulfide bonds in mucus?
• Which of the following is a basic mechanism of shock?
• Loss of fluids is treated with which intervention?
• Exhaled tidal volume VT is calculated by which formula?
• A unilateral wheeze suggests which etiology?
• What RSBI value is associated with readiness for weaning from mechanical ventilation?
• What is the normal fasting serum glucose range?
• To convert a pressure in mmHg to dynes/sec/cm-5, what factor should you multiply by?
• Which measure helps lower intracranial pressure by reducing jugular venous pressure?
• Which parameter is the best measure of oxygen delivery to tissues?
• What is the normal A-aDO2 gradient (A-aDO2) in healthy adults (in mmHg)?
• What is a common cause of acute renal failure in shock patients?
• An air bronchogram on chest radiograph is most strongly associated with which diagnosis?
• What is considered an acceptable VD/VT ratio in ventilated patients?
• In HFOV, increasing Bias Flow primarily affects which ventilator parameter?
• A concave superior interface or border on the chest radiograph is a sign most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Normal potassium range in the blood is approximately:
• If the two R waves are wider than 5 large boxes, the rate is
• What is the normal resting Cardiac Output range?
• Hypochloremia is typically associated with which acid-base disturbance?
• Which laboratory finding defines hypercapnic respiratory failure?
• Thrombocythemia is defined by a platelet count exceeding what value?
• What is the normal range for serum magnesium in mEq/L?
• Which term describes an enlarged tongue?
• Hyperglycemia is defined as blood glucose greater than which value?
• Which medication is listed as a positive inotropic agent for increasing cardiac contractility in STEMI management?
• Normal Sinus Rhythm is characterized by
• Fine crackles are also known as what?
• What is the normal mean pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) range?
• Which induction agent is characterized by fast onset, rapid recovery from a single dose, and maintenance of hemodynamics?
• A decrease in PECO2 or PETCO2% indicates what?
• Continuous suction with CASS uses a vacuum pressure of how many mmHg?
• Drooping of the upper eyelid is called which term?
• Hypocalcemia is defined as total calcium below which value (mg/dL)?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a risk factor for Acute Coronary Syndromes?
• High Frequency Jet Ventilation (HFJV) is described as an option for ventilation in which situation?
• Using the alveolar gas equation, PAO2 for a patient with barometric pressure PB 747 torr, PH2O about 47 torr, FiO2 0.50, and PaCO2 40 torr is closest to:
• ACE inhibitors typically have which suffix?
• What is the normal ejection fraction range?
• Hyperinflation during severe asthma can compromise the diaphragm. Which statement is true?
• Ground glass appearance described as reticulogranular on a chest radiograph is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Direct vasodilators include which of the following?
• Which complication is associated with rhabdomyolysis?
• In anaphylactic shock, which finding may necessitate emergency airway management?
• The diastolic portion of the pulmonary artery pressure is approximately the same as the PCWP by how many mmHg?
• Decelerating flow pattern tends to produce which combination of PIP and Paw?
• Using the standard ideal body weight method, what is the estimated weight in kilograms for a male with a height of five feet eleven inches?
• The apnea test is considered positive when PaCO2 reaches which condition?
• Which medication is a calcium channel blocker?
• What is the definitive test for confirming brain death?
• Which equation represents the stroke volume equation for cardiac output?
• Cardiac Index is defined as Cardiac Output divided by which parameter?
• Which agent acts as a vasoconstrictor?
• What is the target time for door-to-balloon PCI in STEMI management?
• Bradycardia is defined as heart rate below which threshold?
• Which statement about multifocal PVCs is correct according to the listed treatment?
• Rhabdomyolysis can be caused by which factor?
• What is the normal work of breathing (WOB) range in joules per liter?
• Which radiodensity is described as diffuse whiteness?
• S4 is indicative of what?
• When should prone positioning be considered for ALI/ARDS patients?
• What is true about treating shock?
• Hypokalemia is commonly associated with which acid-base disturbance?
• Independent Lung Ventilation (ILV) typically requires which of the following?
• Which pattern is rapid breathing with deep, labored respiration?
• Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are most characteristic of which disease?
• Which sequence correctly lists the three phases of ARDS in order?
• An elevated BNP level (>100 pg/mL) suggests which condition?
• Which statement describes fibrillation as presented?
• Mannitol is used to treat which condition?
• Loss of protective airway reflexes due to head injury is an indication for endotracheal intubation. Which option below represents that condition?
• Which drug increases heart rate chronotropically?
• Which imaging modality can confirm spinal injury diagnosis?
• In healthy individuals, PaCO2 is typically higher than the end-tidal CO2 by about how much?
• What is the normal range for Thrombin Time (TT)?
• Which value for static compliance (Cst) is considered unacceptable?
• Which fluid may be helpful for shock or burns?
• Butterfly/Batwing pattern on imaging is a radiodensity described as which?
• Which statement about ECMO configurations is true?
• Asystole should be managed with
• Dyspnea grading: which grade corresponds to dyspnea during normal-speed walking?
• Which hemodynamic profile is typical of neurogenic shock?
• In BMI assessment, which threshold defines overweight?
• In ICP management, which approach is used to reduce intracranial pressure via sedation and analgesia?
• What is the recommended duration for a spontaneous breathing trial?
• Pulseless ventricular tachycardia requires
• Gastritis is usually caused by which of the following?
• Which statement defines septic shock?
• What PaCO2 range is used during hyperventilation to temporarily reduce intracranial pressure?
• In STEMI, which biomarker indicates a high risk of death?
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for prostacyclin therapy?
• Fever of unknown origin is abbreviated as which term?
• ARDSnet guidelines suggest lowering FiO2 to minimize VILI. Which option reflects this recommendation?
• Hiatal hernia is caused by which contributing factor?
• D-dimer is one of the fibrin degradation products measurable in the blood after a clot has formed.
• End inspiratory lung volumes: Low volumes may cause which condition?
• Which third-generation cephalosporin is used for hospital-acquired infections and has a long half-life?
• Which of the following is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist used in STEMI management?
• Which inhaled medication is first-line for relief of airflow obstruction in acute asthma?
• Normal pulmonary vascular resistance is described as which value?
• What is the mean pulmonary artery pressure approximately?
• Vascular markings on imaging correspond to which radiodensity that is increased in CHF and absent with pneumothorax?
• Which drug is a calcium channel blocker used to treat arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension?
• Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) < 2 mmHg indicates which volume status?
• In anaphylactic shock, which treatment may be helpful?
• To correct AutoPEEP (dynamic hyperinflation), which approach is recommended?
• Which is a prokinetic agent?
• In suspected bacterial infection, which test provides an immediate result to identify the causative organism?
• Which term refers to muscle wasting?
• In Assist/Control (A/C) mode, how are breaths delivered and triggered?
• In a colormetric detection device for capnography, which color corresponds to a normal reading?
• Which of the following is a relative contraindication to noninvasive ventilation?
• Sinus Arrhythmia treatment: Treat any other symptoms
• Acetazolamide is contraindicated in which condition?
• The shunt equation QS/QT uses which components?
• Which drug is a vasopressor used in STEMI management?
• Which radiodensity appears as scattered densities?
• Actual saturation can be measured using which device?
• Which symptom is commonly seen in acute adrenal insufficiency?
• Inverse Ratio Ventilation (IRV) is typically used when which condition is present?
• Which statement about thoracolumbar spine injury is true?
• Which statement regarding NSTEMI is true regarding risk stratification?
• Compressible volume is calculated as which expression?
• Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is used to monitor which therapy?
• Peripheral wedge-shaped infiltrate on a chest radiograph most likely indicates which diagnosis?
• Which formula correctly calculates minute ventilation?
• What CPP value is considered critical?
• Orthostatic hypotension is defined as an excessive drop in blood pressure when standing. Which option reflects this?
• What is the normal clotting time?
• An A-a gradient measured while breathing 100% oxygen is 120 torr. This finding is most consistent with which defect?
• In needle cricothyrotomy, the endotracheal tube adaptor used for ventilation connects to a 7.0 mm ID adaptor. Which of the following IDs matches this adaptor size?
• What is the normal Static Compliance range (Cst) in mL/cmH2O?
• Mean arterial pressure (MAP) normal range is:
• Which of the following is a common clinical sign of shock?
• Pentamidine (NebuPent) is used to treat Pneumocystis jiroveci infections. What is a common adverse effect?
• The shortcut alveolar gas equation PAO2 ≈ (FiO2 as a percent) × 7 − (PaCO2 + 10). This approximation is most appropriate when which condition is met?
• Which agent is a vasoconstrictor listed in the material?
• What is the normal adult blood pressure?
• Cardiac Index is approximately related to Cardiac Output by what relation when BSA is about 2.0 m2?
• Given Hb = 15 g/dL, SaO2 = 92%, PaO2 = 80 torr, CaO2 is approximately:
• If a patient is on room air with no prior information, what FiO2 is typically set on initiation?
• Which statement best describes the normal heart rate on an ECG based on the R-R interval 3-5 large boxes?
• Which is a common side effect of Haloperidol?
• Which drug increases contractility (inotropic)?
• Which of the following is an extra-pulmonary cause of ARDS-related VILI?
• Severe sepsis is defined as sepsis with which features?
• What is the target body temperature range for maintaining organ viability?
• Which radiodensity is associated with extra pulmonary air?
• Orthopnea is best described as which statement?
• Which adjunct therapy may be considered in severe asthma as an IV medication?
• Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate exceeding which threshold?
• Which term describes muscle wasting?
• Which term describes involuntary, rapid, rhythmic movement of the eyeball?
• An 80 kg patient is receiving a set tidal volume of 480 mL. The ventilator circuit has a Tubing Compliance Factor (TCF) of 3.0 mL/cmH2O. PIP = 45 cmH2O and PEEP = 5 cmH2O. What is the corrected tidal volume?
• Which macronutrient yields an RQ of approximately 1.0?
• Which formula defines cerebral perfusion pressure?
• If PAO2 = 110 torr and PaO2 = 85 torr, the A-a gradient is:
• Which of the following is a recognized cause of acute respiratory failure?
• Which statement best characterizes unacceptable minute ventilation (VE)?
• Which statement is NOT part of the criteria for brain death?
• Which symptom is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
• Which treatment is listed for sinus bradycardia?
• Using the formula ((ID size)/2) x 3, what is the estimated suction catheter size (French) for an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 8.0 mm?
• The deep sulcus sign on a supine chest radiograph is most indicative of which condition?
• Ptosis describes which finding?
• Which vasodilator may decrease afterload and increase cardiac output, particularly in heart failure?
• How long may it take for blood cultures to yield results in septic shock?
• According to ARDSnet guidelines, permissive hypercapnia is an approach to limit ventilating pressures. Which statement best captures this guideline?
• Which non-depolarizing NMBA is known for histamine release and potential bronchospasm?
• Which of the following is NOT a common cause of hypomagnesemia?
• Which condition is listed as an indication for inhaled nitric oxide therapy?
• Alterations of Platelet Function are characterized by which finding?
• LMA cuff pressure is typically around which value?
• A peripheral wedge-shaped infiltrate on a chest radiograph most strongly suggests which diagnosis?
• Prior to PCI in STEMI, which drug should be given as a loading dose?
• Which drug is indicated for erosive gastritis as a stomach acid suppression therapy?
• If two R waves are closer than 3 large boxes, the rate is
• Butterfly/Batwing pattern is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Medium rales indicate secretions in which airway and require which intervention?
• In respiratory muscle weakness, what happens to tidal volume and respiratory rate?
• Which white blood cell type is commonly associated with asthma or allergic reactions because it typically makes up about 2% of WBCs?
• What is the normal adult heart rate range?
• What major cardiovascular side effect is associated with Propofol as an induction agent?
• Which non-depolarizing NMBA has rapid onset (60-90 seconds) and an intermediate duration (30-60 minutes), and is the best alternative when depolarizing NMBA is contraindicated?
• Which antiarrhythmic may cause Torsades de Pointes?
• False readings can occur in patients who have been without CPR for a period of time. Which scenario would most likely produce a false reading?
• What is the normal hematocrit percentage?
• Old myocardial infarction is often associated with which electrocardiographic change?
• Static compliance is calculated as exhaled tidal volume divided by which pressure difference?
• During a spontaneous breathing trial, which tidal volume is considered acceptable?
• During a severe asthma crisis requiring intubation, which breath sound finding is most consistent?
• Thrombocytopenia is best defined as:
• Biot's respiration is described as which of the following?
• Which of the following best lists the P/F ratio categories: Normal, Mild ARDS, Moderate ARDS, Severe ARDS?
• In rhabdomyolysis causing renal failure, which finding supports diagnosis?
• RespiGam is used for prevention of RSV infections. Which statement correctly describes RespiGam?
• What is considered the normal work of breathing value in joules per liter?
• For transient ischemic attack management, which therapy is standard?
• In ARDS, what tidal volume per IBW is recommended to minimize ventilator-induced lung injury?
• What is the maximum eye-opening score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which drugs decrease heart rate?
• Troponin is a biomarker used to indicate damage to which tissue?
• What is the minimum acceptable Maximum Expiratory Pressure (MEP) in cmH2O?
• Ribavirin (Virazole) may be used to treat RSV infections and is delivered via SPAG for 12-24 hours daily for 3-5 days. Which statement about its administration is correct?
• What are the two varieties of shock?
• Anatomic Deadspace is defined as the portion of inspired tidal volume that does what?
• What is the recommended sequence for ventricular fibrillation treatment?
• Which antiarrhythmic drug has pulmonary toxicity including pneumonitis and fibrosis as a notable side effect?
• Pyloric obstruction is most appropriately evaluated by which procedure?
• In cardiogenic shock, which treatment is appropriate?
• What is the normal serum creatinine range?
• Which white blood cell type is associated with allergic reactions and makes up about 2% of white blood cells?
• Which agent is listed as a direct vasodilator used in STEMI management?
• Driving pressure is defined as the difference between which two pressures?
• CvO2 is obtained from blood drawn from which location?
• Which dyspnea grade corresponds to walking at a normal speed?
• Approximately how many milliliters of deadspace would be expected in a 150-pound patient, given 1 mL per pound of ideal body weight?
• Which hemodynamic parameters are commonly monitored in shock?
• In a needle cricothyrotomy, which needle gauge is commonly used through the cricothyroid membrane?
• Which antibiotic is indicated for serious infections caused by MRSA and is the most potent antibiotic for MRSA, with potential hypotension and nephrotoxicity; serum levels should be monitored?
• Which is the acceptable A-aDO2 range at FiO2 0.21?
• Which biomarker is commonly used to indicate congestive heart failure in ACS evaluation?
• Cheyne Stokes respiration is characterized by which pattern?
• Basilar infiltrates with a meniscus sign are most strongly associated with which condition?
• Ischemia on an ECG is commonly associated with
• In hyperglycemia of critically ill patients, what glucose range should be maintained after initiating insulin therapy?
• What is the normal range for Respiratory Quotient (RQ)?
• In HFOV, which parameter is the primary control of PaCO2?
• Which term refers to a drooping of the upper eyelid?
• What is the normal PetCO2 value in torr?
• Rhabdomyolysis is best described as what?
• Which class of drugs is indicated to decrease heart rate in myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for apnea testing?
• Which post-stroke complication may be treated with low molecular weight heparin and venous compression devices?
• Brain death is usually the result of which conditions?
• Which agent is used for RSV prevention via intravenous immunoglobulin?
• Prothrombin Time (PT) is used to monitor which therapy?
• What is the recommended initial respiratory rate range when starting mechanical ventilation?
• In myocardial infarction, tissue death may be present along with ongoing tissue dying; what does this indicate about oxygen delivery to the heart muscle?
• Hypotension indicates what?
• Which ABG pattern is most consistent with a severe asthma exacerbation?
• Vascular markings are described as which radiodensity?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, which eye-opening score corresponds to spontaneous opening?
• A WOB greater than 1.5 J/L indicates what?
• Radiolucent findings on a chest radiograph are described as?
• What is the normal arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) range?
• Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating C(a-v)O2?
• Arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is defined as which of the following?
• Which radiodensity is described as a solid white area?
• Which radiodensity is described as an ill-defined radiodensity on chest imaging?
• Which term describes increased respiratory rate with depth and regular rhythm?
• Which drug is used as an inotropic agent in the material?
• Which receptor mediates bronchodilation in the airways?
• What is the approximate normal urine output per hour?
• What is the acceptable respiratory rate (f) range in breaths per minute?
• What approximate body surface area is used for standard CI calculations in the material?
• What is the primary purpose of neuromuscular blocking agents in airway management?
• Ventricular tachycardia is defined as a ventricular rhythm with rate greater than
• Desmopressin is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin and is used to treat which condition?
• Is the work of breathing measurable during mechanical ventilation?
• In 1st degree atrioventricular block, the hallmark on the ECG is a
• Which of the following would be considered an unproven or harmful CVA therapy?
• Which statement best describes 1st degree AV block management?
• Which statement correctly describes cytotoxic edema as a mechanism of increased intracranial pressure?
• In Airway Pressure Release Ventilation (APRV), which statement is true?
• Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) may cause which cardiovascular side effect?
• On the Glasgow Coma Scale, what is the verbal score for an oriented patient?
• General malaise is most accurately described by which symptom?
• Fentanyl is often used during cardiac surgery because of its:
• At FiO2 0.21, what is the normal A-aDO2 value?
• What is the minimum and maximum duration for an Spontaneous Breathing Trial?
• Physiologic Deadspace is the sum of which components, and how is it estimated?
• Which transfusion-related condition is a known cause of acute respiratory failure?
• A common electrolyte disturbance associated with loop diuretics is:
• Which statement best describes the mechanism of methylxanthines such as theophylline?
• Tachypnea is defined as which of the following?
• A heart rate of 110 bpm is classified as tachycardia.
• In ARDS management, which strategy may be used to minimize lung injury by tolerating higher CO2 levels?
• Which glucocorticoid is used if hypotension persists after vasopressor therapy and fluid repletion?
• Which term describes constricted pupils?
• What is the normal shunt (QS/QT) value?
• Which description best characterizes Proportional Assist Ventilation (PRVC)?
• Which ventilator finding best indicates increased airway resistance?
• What cuff pressure is commonly recommended for endotracheal tubes?
• What is a primary treatment for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which antibiotic class is commonly administered via aerosol due to systemic toxicity?
• During apnea testing, the presence of chest or abdominal movements indicates which result?
• Pentobarbital is indicated for which of the following?
• The intensity of exposure for VILI is described by which set of ventilation parameters?
• Which side effect of inhaled nitric oxide therapy may require treatment with methylene blue?
• Cavity formation in the upper lobes on chest imaging is most characteristic of which disease?
• In an unconscious patient, which finding would NOT raise suspicion for cervical spine injury?
• Which symptom is more characteristic of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)?
• Which expression correctly represents the arterial oxygen content CaO2?
• What Oxygen Index value is commonly used as an indication for ECMO?
• Which route of prostacyclin administration targets the pulmonary vasculature and minimizes systemic hypotension?
• Which sign on imaging is most indicative of a pneumothorax on a supine film?
• Following a traumatic incident in a conscious patient, which finding should raise suspicion for cervical spine injury?
• Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Normal white blood cell count is approximately how many per cubic millimeter?
• Dysphagia is best defined as?
• When there is no prior information, what is the initial PEEP setting?
• S2 occurs when which event happens?
• What is the term for respiration described as prolonged gasping inspiration followed by extremely short expiration?
• Which statement is NOT listed as a cause of increased intracranial pressure?
• Which statement about Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is correct?
• In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, the appropriate immediate treatment is
• If Cardiac Output is decreased, what is a common treatment approach?
• Rise Time Adjustment (Slope) is defined as how quickly the pressure is delivered during inspiration.
• Which of the following is a common sign of CVA?
• What is the priority during the initial hours of resuscitation in shock?
• Increased CVP (>6 mmHg) is most consistent with which volume status?
• What is the mechanism of sildenafil in the management of pulmonary hypertension?
• Which radiodensity is described as fluid or solid?
• On an ECG, which statement about tachycardia based on the R-R interval is correct?
• Which condition denotes an enlarged tongue?
• Dynamic compliance is calculated as exhaled tidal volume divided by which pressure difference?
• What is the typical Inspiratory Time Percent Ti% used in HFOV settings?
• Stridor management for swelling and edema?
• Which term describes the presence of excess fluid in the tissue?
• Normal static VC is within which range in mL/kg?
• Normal CvO2 value.
• Which neuromuscular blocking agent is depolarizing and used for rapid sequence induction, with onset around 30 seconds and duration 5-10 minutes?
• Which statement about inhaled anesthetics used in status asthmaticus is true?
• What is the typical INR range for a healthy individual (not on warfarin)?
• During HFOV, the chest wiggle should be observed to extend from which regions to indicate adequate amplitude?
• If Cardiac Output is decreased, which intervention is usually used according to the material?
• Which term describes normal respiratory rate, depth and rhythm?
• In the work of breathing calculation, which expression represents WOB?
• In cardioembolic stroke with no hemorrhage on CT, what is the recommended anticoagulation strategy?
• Which shunt value QS/QT (%) is considered normal?
• Pulse Pressure is defined as which of the following?
• Which opioid analgesic has complications including bradycardia, cardiac arrest, hypo- or hypertension, and respiratory depression?
• Which of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication to noninvasive ventilation?
• Initial management step for unstable angina and NSTEMI includes which action?
• Which medication is an endothelin receptor antagonist used in pulmonary arterial hypertension?
• Iloprost and epoprostenol are examples of which type of drug?
• If mechanical ventilation is required in severe asthma, which approach is recommended?
• Which beta blocker has significant beta-2 blocking effects?
• Decreased lung compliance is indicated by which pressure changes?
• Propofol administration may cause urine to turn which color due to metabolites?
• Clubbing of fingers is typically associated with which underlying condition?
• Opacity is described as 'white pattern, solid, fluid' and is normal for bones and organs.
• Injury below the C4 level may initially allow adequate breathing but may later progress to what condition?
• Which statement best describes hypovolemic shock?
• If PAO2 is 300 torr and PaO2 is 100 torr, what is the Alveolar-Arterial oxygen gradient (A-aDO2)?
• Which drug is an anticholinergic bronchodilator?
• If the heart rate changes by more than 20 bpm during therapy, what is the appropriate action?
• A chest radiograph showing diffuse bilateral radiopacity is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which statement about CvO2 and cardiac output is true?
• Which of the following is an indication for Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NPPV)?
• Diplopia is best described as which symptom?
• Constant inspiratory flow pattern tends to produce which combination of PIP and Paw?
• What is the normal serum chloride level?
• Which formula uses the number of small boxes between R waves to calculate heart rate?
• Stridor is described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a colloid solution?
• Hyponatremia can be produced by which of the following scenarios?
• In asthma, what tidal volume is used to decrease air trapping?
• Which ARF type is defined by PaCO2 greater than 50 torr not due to metabolic alkalosis?
• Which procedure is used to remove a foreign body causing stridor?
• What is Bispectral Index (BIS) monitoring primarily used for?
• S1 is caused by closure of which valves at start of ventricular contraction?
• Low PETCO2 reading immediately after intubation indicates which of the following?
• Initial PSV level is defined as the difference between which two pressures?
• Which of the following is NOT a beneficial effect of prostacyclin therapy?
• In the CaO2 equation, what does the coefficient 0.003 represent?
• Which value represents the normal systemic vascular resistance?
• In initial ventilator settings, what is the recommended tidal volume (VC) per kilogram of IBW?
• Which medication is a Long Acting Beta Agonist (LABA)?
• Which of the following is a symptom of hypophosphatemia?
• In smokers, co-oximetry readings can reach up to what percent?
• Which benzodiazepine is a sedative with an intermediate onset (~15 minutes) and moderate duration (2-3 hours) and may cause hypotension, PVC, tachycardia, or bigeminy?
• Heliox therapy reduces airway resistance primarily by what mechanism?
• Corrected tidal volume equals which expression?
• Which expression correctly calculates mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
• Which of the following is an intra-pulmonary cause of ARDS-related VILI?
• Which of the following is a primary bactericidal drug used in tuberculosis therapy?
• Which induction agent has CNS effects that increase ICP, cerebral perfusion pressure, and cerebral oxygen consumption, with little effect on respiratory or cardiovascular systems?
• Which condition is an indication for endotracheal intubation?
• For a patient with VT 600 mL, VD 180 mL, and rate 12 breaths per minute, what is VA in liters?
• A thyromental distance of 4.5 cm suggests a potentially difficult airway. Normal distance is greater than which value?
• What classes of drugs are used as reversal agents for neuromuscular blocking agents?
• Before initiating PAV, what must the therapist set?
• For a patient with VT 600 mL, VD 150 mL, and rate 10 breaths per minute, what is VA?
• Which finding is commonly associated with STEMI?
• Mobitz I (Wenckebach) block is characterized by
• Elevated lactate levels indicate which of the following about tissue oxygen delivery?
• Cardiac Output is calculated using which relation in the material?
• What is the normal hemoglobin concentration in g/dL?
• Which disorder is an inflammatory renal injury?
• Which combination represents a corticosteroid plus a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)?
• Which statement best describes hypertension?
• Which feature characterizes Synchronous Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV) mode?
• Normal CaO2 is approximately which value?
• Which antibiotic class includes erythromycin and azithromycin and is commonly used to treat pulmonary infections?
• Which statement best defines brain death?
• Cough syncope is defined as which of the following?
• Normally, ETCO2 is lower than PaCO2 by how many mmHg?
• Fasciotomy is indicated in rhabdomyolysis when what condition is met?
• Mean Airway Pressure (Paw) is most influenced by which parameter?
• Which pattern describes increased respiratory rate (usually over 20 breaths per minute) with increased depth, irregular rhythm, and labored breathing?
• Which statement about Normal Sinus Rhythm is true?
• Vasovagal syncope is primarily caused by which mechanism?
• Palivizumab (Synagis) is best described as
• Apnea is defined as which of the following?
• An oxygen cylinder with a pressure of 2000 psig delivering at 10 L/min lasts approximately how many minutes?
• The lower end of the normal phosphorus (PO4 3-) range is which value (mg/dL)?
• Which conditions indicate elevated PCWP in left heart failure?
• What is the normal platelet count range (per mm3)?
• For APRV with poor ventilation (high PaCO2), which adjustment is recommended?
• Hypernatremia is most commonly caused by which condition?
• In suspected sepsis, how should blood cultures be obtained?
• Basilar infiltrates with a meniscus sign on imaging indicate which diagnosis?
• Which medication is used to treat vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage?
• Fluffy infiltrates on imaging are most commonly associated with which diagnosis?
• In APRV, for poor oxygenation, what is the primary adjustment described?
• Ascites is most closely associated with which organ failure?
• Which condition can cause hyperkalemia?
• NOT an intra-pulmonary ARDS trigger?
• In systemic sepsis, SvO2 below what percentage is considered abnormal?
• In HFOV, which parameter is the primary control of oxygenation (PaO2)?
• Acute adrenal insufficiency may be precipitated by which of the following?
• A chest radiograph shows platelike densities described as thin-layered densities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which formula defines minute ventilation VE?
• VD/VT ratio calculation: If PaCO2 is 40 torr and PECO2 is 30 torr, what is the VD/VT ratio expressed as a percentage?
• What are the typical onset and duration characteristics of Propofol?
• In acute asthma management, what is the target SpO2 when providing supplemental oxygen?
• Which vasopressor is used in codes for pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation?
• A common treatment component for DIC includes which therapy?
• Atrial flutter is defined as a rhythm with rate typically exceeding
• 3rd degree AV block is typically defined by
• In managing unstable angina or NSTEMI, oxygen therapy is indicated for which condition?
• CASS reduces ventilator-associated pneumonia primarily by which mechanism?
• PECO2 is defined as:
• Which of the following is listed as a criterion for maintaining organ viability in a donor?
• Fine crackles are most consistent with which condition?
• Which class of medication is considered first-line therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
• What term describes necrosis or death of tissue as the end result of ischemia?
• Clubbing of fingers is a sign of chronic hypoxemia associated with which system?
• What is the formula for Respiratory Quotient?
• What is the daily caloric target for a patient weighing 70 kg at 25 kcal/kg/day?
• Peripheral edema is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?
• Mechanical Deadspace is defined as the amount of circuit tubing between the patient and the wye adapter. Approximately how many milliliters per inch of tubing?
• Which radiodensity is described as a solid white area and is commonly seen with pneumonia or pleural effusion?
• An increase in the VD/VT ratio indicates the presence of what kind of condition?
• Hyperpnea describes which breathing pattern?
• What is the most serious complication associated with airway suctioning?
• D-dimer is best described as:
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a treatment for thrombocytopenia?
• Which inspiratory flow pattern is associated with improved distribution of ventilation?
• Which formula correctly calculates CvO2?
• What is the recommended depth range for oral endotracheal intubation?
• Which equation correctly defines the alveolar gas equation PAO2?
• ECMO is a procedure that allows blood to be removed from the patient and oxygen to be diffused into the blood while carbon dioxide is removed. It can be configured by which interface?
• Three factors classically cited as controlling blood pressure are?
• A patient on mechanical ventilation has a dead-space to tidal-volume ratio (VD/VT) of 0.25 with a tidal volume (VT) of 800 mL. What is the dead-space ventilation (VD) in mL?
• Which statement best describes the shunt portion QS/QT?
• Which fibrinolytic agent is used to reperfuse the myocardium in STEMI?
• What is the normal PaCO2?
• Diffuse radiodensity is described as spread throughout and is associated with which conditions?
• What is the normal resting pulse range for adults?
• What is a primary treatment for hypovolemic shock?
• In an acute ischemic stroke, which therapy is used to dissolve clots?
• Which inhaled anesthetic is currently noted as newer and more commonly available for treating status asthmaticus?
• Which agent reverses opioid effects?
• Coarse rales (rhonchi) indicate secretions in which airway and require which intervention?
• Which diagnosis is associated with a honeycomb pattern described as reticulgranular on radiographs?
• What is the usual stroke volume range?
• Which drug is commonly used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and digoxin toxicity?
• Which oxygenation defect typically shows an increase in PaO2 with oxygen therapy?
• Which condition is a contraindication to ECMO?
• Which radiodensity is described as spread throughout?
• Which mechanism is most commonly responsible for causing hypoxemic respiratory failure?
• C(a-v)O2 difference is used in the Fick equation to calculate which two things?
• In VILI, duration of exposure is best described by which factor?
• Using the formula for endotracheal tube size, what is the approximate size for a 60 kg adult?
• In cardiogenic shock, which of the following is observed?
• Which radiographic pattern is most consistent with atelectasis on a chest radiograph?
• What is the starting bias flow commonly used for HFOV?
• Which drug is a direct vasodilator?
• In the shortcut method for estimating ideal body weight, what is the weight in kilograms for a five-foot-eleven-inch tall male?
• Orthopnea is most commonly associated with which condition?
• In the setting of low cardiac output, what is the typical central venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) range?
• What does VD stand for in respiratory physiology?
• Cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is defined as what?
• What is a key benefit of High Frequency Oscillatory Ventilation in severe lung injury?
• A decreased platelet count is associated with decreased bone marrow function.
• What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
• In STEMI management, which antiplatelet therapy should be given as soon as possible?
• Which drug is indicated for hypertensive emergencies perioperatively, especially during cardiovascular surgery?
• Which term describes normal breathing?
• Fine rales indicate alveolar fluid due to CHF; management includes which?
• Which condition is a contraindication for the insertion of an ICP monitor?
• Which statement about APRV is true?
• Which formula calculates alveolar minute ventilation?
• Oliguria is defined as urine output less than which threshold?
• Alveolar Deadspace refers to alveolar ventilation that has no blood perfusion. This typically occurs with which condition?
• Pulse variation with respiration can indicate which of the following conditions?
• Which drug classification is primarily used to decrease anxiety and promote relaxation?
• Which of the following is a common disadvantage of noninvasive ventilation?
• Which statement best describes Proportional Assist Ventilation (PAV) mode?
• What is the normal serum sodium level in adults?
• Which agent reverses the effects of benzodiazepines?
• Which MAP range is the target for maintaining organ viability?
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage is typically characterized by which presentation?
• Tachycardia may indicate which of the following conditions?
• What is the recommended treatment for sinus tachycardia in this material?
• Which finding is most characteristic of STEMI?
• Which statement about non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents is true?
• The direction of the heart’s electrical axis is described as
• What is the typical mean airway pressure for normal lung compliance and resistance?
• Which conditions are associated with right heart failure in hemodynamic interpretation?
• During clinical assessment of shock, which finding indicates reduced tissue perfusion?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between PetCO2 and PaCO2?
• A PaO2/FiO2 ratio below 300 indicates which condition?
• Normal red blood cell count per cubic millimeter is approximately:
• What is a typical adverse effect of opioids such as morphine?
• In Mallampati classification, which class has the base of the uvula visible?
• S3 in adults is abnormal and may suggest which condition?
• Milrinone is used for short-term management of heart failure and works by reducing preload and afterload. Which drug is this description describing?
• Tracheal deviation toward the side is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor?
• Hemoximetry (Co-oximetry) is used to diagnose which conditions?
• Which term describes double vision?
• What is the motor score for obeying commands in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• A notable side effect of prostacyclin therapy upon discontinuation is?
• Which statement about the FDA status of noninvasive ventilation is true?
• Which option correctly describes the appearance of nystagmus?
• Mobitz II block is distinguished by
• Which of the following is not a typical treatment for stridor due to swelling or edema?
• Which equation is used to calculate cardiac output using VO2 and C(a-v)O2 difference?
• Which formula uses the number of large boxes between R waves to calculate heart rate?
• In initial ventilator settings for lung protection, plateau pressure should be kept below which value (cm H2O)?
• In ARDS, which plateau pressure should be maintained (cmH2O)?
• What is the normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) range?
• In patients with ARDS, what is the typical mean airway pressure range?
• Which drug is a stable analogue of PGI2 used for pulmonary hypertension?
• How should inhaled nitric oxide therapy be discontinued to minimize rebound pulmonary hypertension?
• Appendicitis is most commonly diagnosed in which age range?
• Which of the following is an H2 receptor antagonist?
• Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) or negative inspiratory force (NIF) normal value?
• Initial defibrillation energy for ventricular fibrillation is typically
• Which of the following is an advantage of noninvasive ventilation?
• Sinus Arrhythmia is best described as
• Bradypnea is defined as which of the following?
• Mode of transport for a patient traveling 100 miles?
• When administering Pentamidine inhalation therapy, which safety precaution is recommended to prevent contamination and protect staff?
• In severe asthma, three key pathophysiologic changes are
• Tracheal deviation away from the midline is most characteristic of which emergency condition?
• Ascites is most commonly caused by which condition?
• In the context of lung disease, which conditions are associated with elevated PAP and CVP?
• An increase in PECO2 or PETCO2% indicates what?
• What is the standard initial dose range for inhaled nitric oxide?